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Suppose you are the president of a small, publicly-traded corporation. Since you believe that your firm's stock price is temporarily depressed, all additional capital funds required during the current year will be raised using debt. In this case, the appropriate marginal cost of capital for use in capital budgeting during the current year is the after-tax cost of debt.

A) True
B) False

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


A) Although some methods used to estimate the cost of equity are subject to severe limitations, the CAPM is a simple, straightforward, and reliable model that consistently produces accurate cost of equity estimates. In particular, academics and corporate finance people generally agree that its key inputs--beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium--can be estimated with little error.
B) The DCF model is generally preferred by academics and financial executives over other models for estimating the cost of equity. This is because of the DCF model's logical appeal and also because accurate estimates for its key inputs, the dividend yield and the growth rate, are
C) The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of equity may not always be accurate, but it has the advantage that its two key inputs, the firm's own cost of debt and its risk premium, can be found by using standardized and objective procedures.
D) Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity.
E) The DCF model is preferred by academics and finance practitioners over other cost of capital models because it correctly recognizes that the expected return on a stock consists of a dividend yield plus an expected capital gains yield.

F) C) and E)
G) C) and D)

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The cost of equity raised by retaining earnings can be less than, equal to, or greater than the cost of external equity raised by selling new issues of common stock, depending on tax rates, flotation costs, the attitude of investors, and other factors.

A) True
B) False

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The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. Since we cannot be sure that the estimate obtained with any of these methods is correct, it is often appropriate to use all three methods, then consider all three estimates, and end up using a judgmental estimate when calculating the WACC.

A) True
B) False

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If investors' aversion to risk rose, causing the slope of the SML to increase, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Other things held constant, this would lead to an increase in the use of debt and a decrease in the use of equity. However, other things would not stay constant if firms used a lot more debt, as that would increase the riskiness of both debt and equity and thus limit the shift toward debt.

A) True
B) False

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When estimating the cost of equity by use of the CAPM, three potential problems are (1) whether to use long-term or short-term rates for rRF, (2) whether or not the historical beta is the beta that investors use when evaluating the stock, and (3) how to measure the market risk premium, RPM. These problems leave us unsure of the true value of rs.

A) True
B) False

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A company's perpetual preferred stock currently sells for $92.50 per share, and it pays an $8.00 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 5.00% of the issue price. What is the firm's cost of preferred stock?


A) 7.81%
B) 8.22%
C) 8.65%
D) 9.10%
E) 9.56%

F) None of the above
G) A) and B)

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For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should always consider retained earnings as the first source of capital--i.e., use these funds first--because retained earnings have no cost to the firm.

A) True
B) False

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When estimating the cost of equity by use of the DCF method, the single biggest potential problem is to determine the growth rate that investors use when they estimate a stock's expected future rate of return. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs.

A) True
B) False

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The cost of perpetual preferred stock is found as the preferred's annual dividend divided by the market price of the preferred stock. No adjustment is needed for taxes because preferred dividends, unlike interest on debt, are not deductable by the issuing firm.

A) True
B) False

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The cost of common equity obtained by retaining earnings is the rate of return the marginal stockholder requires on the firm's common stock.

A) True
B) False

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Eakins Inc.'s common stock currently sells for $45.00 per share, the company expects to earn $2.75 per share during the current year, its expected payout ratio is 70%, and its expected constant growth rate is 6.00%. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 8% would be incurred. By how much would the cost of new stock exceed the cost of retained earnings?


A) 0.09%
B) 0.19%
C) 0.37%
D) 0.56%
E) 0.84%

F) B) and D)
G) C) and D)

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


A) The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm's tax rate increases.
B) The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it is simply unable to borrow any more money.
C) The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm is taking on investments that are so risky the firm is in serious danger of going bankrupt if things do not go exactly as planned.
D) The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of new retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock.
E) The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has exhausted its supply of new retained earnings and thus must begin to finance with preferred stock.

F) A) and C)
G) A) and B)

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Firms raise capital at the total corporate level by retaining earnings and by obtaining funds in the capital markets. They then provide funds to their different divisions for investment in capital projects. The divisions may vary in risk, and the projects within the divisions may also vary in risk. Therefore, it is conceptually correct to use different risk-adjusted costs of capital for different capital budgeting projects.

A) True
B) False

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If a firm is privately owned, and its stock is not traded in public markets, then we cannot measure its beta for use in the CAPM model, we cannot observe its stock price for use in the DCF model, and we don't know what the risk premium is for use in the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. All this makes it especially difficult to estimate the cost of equity for a private company.

A) True
B) False

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Vang Enterprises, which is debt-free and finances only with equity from retained earnings, is considering 7 equal sized capital budgeting projects. Its CFO hired you to assist in deciding whether none, some, or all of the projects should be accepted. You have the following information: rRF = 4.50%; RPM = 5.50%; and b = 0.92. The company adds or subtracts a specified percentage to the corporate WACC when it evaluates projects that have above- or below-average risk. Data on the 7 projects are shown below. If these are the only projects under consideration, how large should the capital budget be?


A) $100
B) $ 75
C) $ 50
D) $ 25
E) $ 0

F) A) and D)
G) None of the above

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Cranberry Corp. has two divisions of equal size: a computer manufacturing division and a data processing division. Its CFO believes that stand-alone data processor companies typically have a WACC of 8%, while stand-alone computer manufacturers typically have a 12% WACC. He also believes that the data processing and manufacturing divisions have the same risk as their typical peers. Consequently, he estimates that the composite, or corporate, WACC is 10%. A consultant has suggested using an 8% hurdle rate for the data processing division and a 12% hurdle rate for the manufacturing division. However, the CFO disagrees, and he has assigned a 10% WACC to all projects in both divisions. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


A) While the decision to use just one WACC will result in its accepting more projects in the manufacturing division and fewer projects in its data processing division than if it followed the consultant's recommendation, this should not affect the firm's intrinsic value.
B) The decision not to adjust for risk means, in effect, that it is favoring the data processing division. Therefore, that division is likely to become a larger part of the consolidated company over time.
C) The decision not to adjust for risk means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing division and too few in the data processing division. This will lead to a reduction in the firm's intrinsic value over time.
D) The decision not to risk-adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the data processing business and too few projects in the manufacturing business. This will lead to a reduction in its intrinsic value over time.
E) The decision not to risk adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing business and too few projects in the data processing business. This may affect the firm's capital structure but it will not affect its intrinsic value.

F) A) and B)
G) A) and C)

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What is the best estimate of the after-tax cost of debt?


A) 4.64%
B) 4.88%
C) 5.14%
D) 5.40%
E) 5.67%

F) All of the above
G) B) and D)

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The MacMillen Company has equal amounts of low-risk, average-risk, and high-risk projects. The firm's overall WACC is 12%. The CFO believes that this is the correct WACC for the company's average-risk projects, but that a lower rate should be used for lower-risk projects and a higher rate for higher-risk projects. The CEO disagrees, on the grounds that even though projects have different risks, the WACC used to evaluate each project should be the same because the company obtains capital for all projects from the same sources. If the CEO's position is accepted, what is likely to happen over time?


A) The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects.
B) The company will take on too many low-risk projects and reject too many high-risk projects.
C) Things will generally even out over time, and, therefore, the firm's risk should remain constant over time.
D) The company's overall WACC should decrease over time because its stock price should be increasing.
E) The CEO's recommendation would maximize the firm's intrinsic value.

F) A) and B)
G) None of the above

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT?


A) When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation.
B) When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes, because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying corporation.
C) Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the CAPM.
D) If a company's beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough retained earnings to take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock.
E) Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a reduction in a company's WACC.

F) B) and E)
G) A) and B)

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